Equine Medicine quiz

WIKIQUIZ

Questions reviewed by:

Kirstie Pickles BVMS MSc Cert EM (Int Med) PhD Dip ECEIM MRCVS Lecturer in Equine Practice

1

Which hypersensitivity condition is thought to be caused by an allergy to plant pollens and plant associated fungal spores? Inflammatory airway disease (IAD) Diffuse fibrosing alveolitis Extrinsic Allergic Bronchio-alveolitis Summer pasture-associated recurrent airway obstruction (SPA-RAO) Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) Please select an option Incorrect. The aetiology of inflammatory airway disease (IAD) is unknown. Proposed aetiologies include allergic airway disease, recurrent pulmonary stress, deep inhalation of dust, atmospheric pollutants, and/ or persistent respiratory viral infections. The correct answer is summer pasture-associated recurrent airway obstruction (SPA-RAO), seen in horses and is similar to the form seen when stabled, but this is seen when at summer pasture. WikiVet Article: hypersensitivity Incorrect. Diffuse fibrosing alveolitis is a type III hypersensitivity. There is a diffuse inflammatory process characterised by thickening and fibrosis of the alveolar walls. The aetiology is not fully understood but it is likely to represent the end stage of a variety of initial insults. The correct answer is summer pasture-associated recurrent airway obstruction (SPA-RAO), seen in horses and is similar to the form seen when stabled, but this is seen when at summer pasture. WikiVet Article: hypersensitivity Incorrect. Extrinsic Allergic Bronchio-alveolitis is a type III hypersensitivity which arises due to repeated inhalation of spores of thermophilic actinomycetes in mouldy hay. It is a disease primarily of housed cattle in winter. The correct answer is summer pasture-associated recurrent airway obstruction (SPA-RAO), seen in horses and is similar to the form seen when stabled, but this is seen when at summer pasture. WikiVet Article: hypersensitivity Correct! SPA-RAO is a type III hypersensitivity seen in horses and is similar to the form seen in stabled horses, but this is seen when at summer pasture. WikiVet Article: hypersensitivity Incorrect. RAO was formally known as Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is a type III hypersensitivity which is encountered in adult horses and is a major cause of loss of performance. It is an asthma-like syndrome of the bronchioalveolar region, it is not fully understood, but is thought primarily to be a hypersensitivity response to inhaled allergens found in mouldy hay or bedding and in stable dust. The correct answer is summer pasture-associated recurrent airway obstruction (SPA-RAO), seen in horses and which is similar to the form seen when stabled, but this is seen when at summer pasture. WikiVet Article: hypersensitivity

2

Which cranial nerves are in contact with the medial compartment of the guttural pouch? Cranial nerves V, VI, VII and VIII Cranial nerves IX, X, XI and XII Cranial nerves VII, VIII, IX and X Cranial nerves VIII, IX, X and XI Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII, IX Please select an option Incorrect. Cranial nerve VII, runs for a short distance over the caudodorsal aspect of the lateral, not the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, the continuation of the sympathetic trunk beyond the cranial cervical ganglion and the internal carotid artery all run alonside the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. WikiVet Article: guttural pouch. Correct! Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, the continuation of the sympathetic trunk beyond the cranial cervical ganglion and the internal carotid artery all run alonside the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. WikiVet Article: guttural pouch. Incorrect. Cranial nerve VII, runs for a short distance over the caudodorsal aspect of the lateral, not the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, the continuation of the sympathetic trunk beyond the cranial cervical ganglion and the internal carotid artery all run alonside the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. WikiVet Article: guttural pouch. Incorrect. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, the continuation of the sympathetic trunk beyond the cranial cervical ganglion and the internal carotid artery all run alonside the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. WikiVet Article: guttural pouch. Incorrect. Cranial nerve VII, runs for a short distance over the caudodorsal aspect of the lateral, not the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, the continuation of the sympathetic trunk beyond the cranial cervical ganglion and the internal carotid artery all run alonside the medial compartment of the guttural pouch. WikiVet Article: guttural pouch.

3

Which of the following is a valid treatment for tetanus in the horse in the early stages of infection? Sedatives and muscle relaxants Wound debridement, IV antibiotics and tetanus antitoxin injections Low dose short course antibiotics Immediately bandaging the wound Tetanus vaccination followed by tetanus antitoxin Please select an option Incorrect. At the early stage of infection the patient will not yet be exhibiting tetanic spasms which would require sedation and muscle relaxants. The correct answer is wound debridement, IV antibiotics and tetanus antitoxin injections. Opening up and debriding the wound will increase oxygen in the environment (Clostridium is an anaerobe). This in conjunction with high doses of IV penicillin to treat the infection, plus high doses of tetanus antitoxin to try and bind toxin not yet bound to neuromuscular junctions is an appropriate approach to treatment of tetanus in the early stages of infection. Link to WikiVet: Tetanus Correct! Opening up and debriding the wound will increase oxygen in the environment (Clostridium is an anaerobe). This in conjunction with high doses of IV penicillin to treat the infection, plus high doses of tetanus antitoxin to try and bind toxin not yet bound to neuromuscular junctions is an appropriate approach to treatment of tetanus in the early stages of infection. WikiVet Article: Tetanus Incorrect. Antibiotics would be used in the early stages of infection but you want to use very high dose and extended courses to have any effect on the infection. The correct answer is wound debridement, IV antibiotics and tetanus antitoxin injections. Opening up and debriding the wound will increase oxygen in the environment (Clostridium is an anaerobe). This in conjunction with high doses of IV penicillin to treat the infection, plus high doses of tetanus antitoxin to try and bind toxin not yet bound to neuromuscular junctions is an appropriate approach to treatment of tetanus in the early stages of infection. Link to WikiVet: Tetanus Incorrect. The pathogenesis of tetanus is associated with penetration and germination of spores in a wound where there is an anaerobic environment. Bandaging the wound would exacerbate this by creating the optimum anaerobic environment for Clostridium. The correct answer is wound debridement, IV antibiotics and tetanus antitoxin injections. Opening up and debriding the wound will increase oxygen in the environment (Clostridium is an anaerobe). This in conjunction with high doses of IV penicillin to treat the infection, plus high doses of tetanus antitoxin to try and bind toxin not yet bound to neuromuscular junctions is an appropriate approach to treatment of tetanus in the early stages of infection. Link to WikiVet: Tetanus Incorrect. Tetanus vaccination is an inappropriate treatment for a horse in the early stages of tetanus infection. The horse will either be dead or recovered by the time it has it has raised antibodies and if it were to survive it would have a strong immunity from natural exposure. Tetanus antitoxin however is an appropriate part of a treatment plan in this case. The correct answer is wound debridement, IV antibiotics and tetanus antitoxin injections. Opening up and debriding the wound will increase oxygen in the environment (Clostridium is an anaerobe). This in conjunction with high doses of IV penicillin to treat the infection, plus high doses of tetanus antitoxin to try and bind toxin not yet bound to neuromuscular junctions is an appropriate approach to treatment of tetanus in the early stages of infection. Link to WikiVet: Tetanus

4

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes what type of disease in horses? Mastitis Granulomatous lymphadenitis Caseous lymphadenitis Pyelonephritis Ulcerative lymphangitis Please select an option Incorrect. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis does not cause mastitis in the horse. The correct answer is that C. pseudotuberculosis causes ulcerative lymphangitis in the horse. The infection results in lymphangitis of lower limbs or abscessation in pectoral region. This is a rare disease in the UK, but is relatively common in southwestern USA, where infection in horses is seasonal, with a peak incidence in late summer and autumn. In the UK, the same organism is more commonly found in sheep and goats, where it causes caseous lymphadenitis. Link to WikiVet: Corynebacterium Incorrect. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis does not cause granulomatous lymphadenitis in the horse. The correct answer is that C. pseudotuberculosis causes ulcerative lymphangitis in the horse. The infection results in lymphangitis of lower limbs or abscessation in pectoral region. This is a rare disease in the UK, but is relatively common in southwestern USA, where infection in horses is seasonal, with a peak incidence in late summer and autumn. In the UK, the same organism is more commonly found in sheep and goats, where it causes caseous lymphadenitis. Link to WikiVet: Corynebacterium Incorrect. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis does not cause caseous lymphadenitis in the horse. However in the UK, this organism is most commonly found in sheep and goats, where it does cause caseous lymphadenitisThe correct answer is that C. pseudotuberculosis causes ulcerative lymphangitis in the horse. The infection results in lymphangitis of lower limbs or abscessation in pectoral region. This is a rare disease in the UK, but is relatively common in southwestern USA, where infection in horses is seasonal, with a peak incidence in late summer and autumn. Link to WikiVet: Corynebacterium Incorrect. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis does not cause pyelonephritis in the horse. The correct answer is that C. pseudotuberculosis causes ulcerative lymphangitis in the horse. The infection results in lymphangitis of lower limbs or abscessation in pectoral region. This is a rare disease in the UK, but is relatively common in southwestern USA, where infection in horses is seasonal, with a peak incidence in late summer and autumn. In the UK, the same organism is more commonly found in sheep and goats, where it causes caseous lymphadenitis. Link to WikiVet: Corynebacterium Correct! Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes ulcerative lymphangitis in the horse. The infection results in lymphangitis of lower limbs or abscessation in pectoral region. This is a rare disease in the UK, but is relatively common in southwestern USA, where infection in horses is seasonal, with a peak incidence in late summer and autumn. In the UK, the same organism is more commonly found in sheep and goats, where it causes caseous lymphadenitis. Link to WikiVet: Corynebacterium

5

Which peripheral nerve disease of horses involves degeneration of the ventral horn motor neurons? Cauda equina neuritis Stringhalt Sweeney Equine motor neuron disease Distal denervating disease Please select an option Incorrect. Cauda equina neuritis is the equine version of idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis. Extradural nerve roots of cauda equina are thickened and discoloured and there is an inflammatory infiltrate, extensive axonal damage and demyelination. The aetiology unknown. The correct answer is equine motor neuron disease, which is a generalised lower motor neuron disorder. There is degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, chromatolysis, neurofilament accumulation, gliosis, Wallerian degeneration and denervation changes in the muscle. WikiVet Article: PNS Incorrect. Stringhalt is a distal axonopathy especially of large diameter fibres, but its causes are poorly understood. The correct answer is equine motor neuron disease, which is a generalised lower motor neuron disorder. There is degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, chromatolysis, neurofilament accumulation, gliosis, Wallerian degeneration and denervation changes in the muscle. WikiVet Article: PNS Incorrect. Suprascapular nerve injury or 'Sweeney' is caused by the horse colliding into an object. There is fibrous entrapment as the nerve is reflected around the wing of the scapula, resulting in atrophy of supra- and infra- spinatous muscles. The correct answer is equine motor neuron disease, which is a generalised lower motor neuron disorder. There is degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, chromatolysis, neurofilament accumulation, gliosis, Wallerian degeneration and denervation changes in the muscle. WikiVet Article: PNS Correct! Equine motor neuron disease is a generalised lower motor neuron disorder of particularly postural muscles of the body limbs, neck and sacrocaudalis medialis leading to diffuse weakness and a raised tail head. There is degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, chromatolysis, neurofilament accumulation, gliosis, Wallerian degeneration and denervation changes in the muscle. WikiVet Article: PNS Incorrect. Distal denervating disease is a distal axonopathy, possibly of toxic origin. It is a condition of small animals, not large animals. The correct answer is equine motor neuron disease, which is a generalised lower motor neuron disorder. There is degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, chromatolysis, neurofilament accumulation, gliosis, Wallerian degeneration and denervation changes in the muscle. WikiVet Article: PNS

6

What is a potential sequel to guttural pouch empyema in the horse? Laryngeal hemiplegia Chondroids Distension of the guttural pouch with air Retropharyngeal abscesses Epistaxis Please select an option Incorrect. Laryngeal hemiplegia is associated with guttural pouch mycosis, a fibrinous necrotising diphtheritic inflammatory process most often caused by Aspergillus spp. There is invasion of neighbouring structures such as nerves, causing the hemiplegia. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, XII and the sympathetic trunk cross the dorsocaudal aspect of the medial compartment, and cranial nerve VII is in contact with the lateral compartment.The correct answer is chondroids. These consist of inspissated pus. Empyema is caused by upper respiratory tract infections, especially the pathogenic Streptococcus equi var. equi. WikiVet Article: Guttural pouch Correct! Chondroids are formed from inspissated pus. Empyema is caused by upper respiratory tract infections, especially the pathogenic Streptococcus equi var. equi, the cause of Strangles. WikiVet Article: Guttural pouch Incorrect. Distention of the guttural pouch is seen in guttural pouch tympany, a congenital defect of the guttural pouch ostia. Although it is potentially secondary to inflammation it is not itself an inflammatory condition. The abnormal distention of pouch with air causes a marked retropharyngeal swelling. The correct answer is chondroids. These consist of inspissated pus. Empyema is caused by upper respiratory tract infections, especially the pathogenic Streptococcus equi var. equi. WikiVet Article: Guttural pouch Incorrect. Retropharyngeal abscess is a possible cause of guttural pouch empyema not a consequence of it. The correct answer is chondroids. These consist of inspissated pus. Empyema is caused by upper respiratory tract infections, especially the pathogenic Streptococcus equi var. equi. WikiVet Article: Guttural pouch Incorrect. Epistaxis is associated with guttural pouch mycosis, a fibrinous necrotising diphtheritic inflammatory process, most often caused by Aspergillus spp. The fungus grows adjacent to the internal carotid artery and can lead to necrosis of the arterial wall and (sometimes fatal) haemorrhage. The correct answer is chondroids, which are concretions of inspissated pus. Empyema is caused by upper respiratory tract infections, especially the pathogenic Streptococcus equi var. equi, the cause of Strangles. WikiVet Article: Guttural pouch

7

Which of the following is a predisposing factor for a pedunculated lipoma in the horse? Non steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) Crib-biting Post partum mare Tapeworms Obesity Please select an option Incorrect. Administration of NSAIDs predisposes horses to gastric and colonic ulceration and colitis, but not pedunculated lipomas. Overweight horses, particularly Arabian horses and Morgan ponies are predisposed to pedunculated lipomas. These are a common cause of a strangulating obstruction of the small intestine, which needs to be surgically resected. Link to WikiVet: Equine Intestinal Conditions; Gastric Ulceration Incorrect. Horses that crib bite are predisposed to epiploic foramen entrapment, not pedunculated lipomas. Overweight horses, particularly Arabian horses and Morgan ponies are predisposed to pedunculated lipomas. These are a common cause of a strangulating obstruction of the small intestine, which needs to be surgically resected. Link to WikiVet: Equine Intestinal Conditions; Epiploic Foramen Entrapment Incorrect. Post partum mares are predisposed to large colon vovulus, not pedunculated lipomas. Overweight horses, particularly Arabian horses and Morgan ponies are predisposed to pedunculated lipomas. These are a common cause of a strangulating obstruction of the small intestine, which needs to be surgically resected. Link to WikiVet: Equine Intestinal Conditions; Large colon torsion Incorrect. Anoplocephala perfoliata tapeworm infestation can predispose spasmodic colic and ileal impaction in the horse, but do not predispose pedunculated lipomas. Overweight horses, particularly Arabian horses and Morgan ponies are predisposed to pedunculated lipomas. These are a common cause of a strangulating obstruction of the small intestine, which needs to be surgically resected. Link to WikiVet: Equine Intestinal Conditions; Impaction Correct! Overweight horses, particularly Arabian horses and Morgan ponies are predisposed to pedunculated lipomas. These are a common cause of a strangulating obstruction of the small intestine, which needs to be surgically resected. Link to WikiVet: Equine Intestinal Conditions

8

Which of the following parameters may suggest that an equine colic patient can be managed medically? Ileus 1.5 litres nasogastric reflux Heart rate of 64 bpm Depression Serosanguineous peritoneal fluid sample Please select an option Correct! Less than 2 litres nasogastric reflux usually suggests a medical colic. More than 5 litres of fluid, and rapid reaccumulation usually indicates that surgery is necessary. Remember, it is important that any findings are considered in the context of the history, full clinical examination and results of other ancillary diagnostic procedures. Signs that indicate that a colic is surgical include depression, unrelenting and progressive pain that is unresponsive to analgesia, ileus, abnormalities per rectum, heart rate

9

Which of the following is true with regard inflammatory airway disease (IAD) in the horse? It is associated with Equine Herpes Virus It always leads to recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) It is a life-long condition It can not be differentiated from recurrent airway obstruction by bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) Often seen in young racehorses Please select an option Incorrect. Although the definitive cause of IAD is unknown, a link between equine herpes virus or rhinovirus has not been proven. Implicated causes are bacterial infection with streptococcus spp, mycoplasma and actinobacillus. The correct answer is that IAD is seen in young racehorses with a prevalence of 20-65%. It is characterised by excessive mucus in the airways, coughing and/ or reduced performance. It may also be subclinical. Link to WikiVet: Incorrect. Whilst inflammatory airway disease (IAD) may possibly progress to RAO, it does not always do so, The correct answer is that IAD is seen in young racehorses with a prevalence of 20-65%. It is characterised by excessive mucus in the airways, coughing and/ or reduced performance. It may also be subclinical. Link to WikiVet: Incorrect. Diagnosis of inflammatory airway disease does not necessarily imply a life-long condition. The correct answer is that IAD is seen in young racehorses with a prevalence of 20-65%. It is characterised by excessive mucus in the airways, coughing and/ or reduced performance. It may also be subclinical. Link to WikiVet: Incorrect. Although there is some overlap of cytological findings on examination of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid between recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) and inflammatory airway disease (IAD), when other factors such as age and environment are taken into account, BAL cytology CAN help differentiate the two conditions. Typically, RAO BAL fluid cytology shows a marked neutrophilia, whereas IAD BAL cytology shows mild neutrophilia and possibly lymphocytosis and monocytosis. The correct answer is that IAD is seen in young racehorses with a prevalence of 20-65%. It is characterised by excessive mucus in the airways, coughing and/ or reduced performance. It may also be subclinical. Link to WikiVet: Correct! Inflammatory airway disease (IAD) is seen in young racehorses with a prevalence of 20-65%. It is characterised by excessive mucus in the airways and coughing and/ or reduced performance. It may also be subclinical. Link to WikiVet:

10

Which of the following is true with regards to testing for contagious equine metritis in the UK? Positive cultures of Klebsiella pneumoniae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa are notifiable A positive culture of Taylorella equigenitalis is notifiable Pre-breeding clitoral and endometrial swabs can be taken at any time of the oestrous cycle Stallions that have not previously been used for breeding purposes are classified as low risk All swabs should be cultured both aerobically and anaerobically Please select an option Incorrect. CEM swabbing tests for Taylorella equigenitalis, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa,. A positive culture for the contagious equine metritis organism (CEMO), Taylorella equigenitalis, is notifiable by law in the UK. However positive cultures of K. pneumoniae and P. aeruginosa are not notifiable. Link to WikiVet: Taylorella equigenitalis Link to HBLB: CEM Code of Practice Correct! A positive culture for the contagious equine metritis organism (CEMO), Taylorella equigenitalis, is notifiable by law in the UK. The CEM test also tests for Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, however positive cultures of these two organisms are not notifiable. Link to WikiVet: Taylorella equigenitalis Link to HBLB: CEM Code of Practice Incorrect. The testing protocol differs depending on the level of risk of the mare, and the circumstances (i.e. whether she is a 'walk in' mare or boarding on the same premises as the stallion) but endometrial swabs must always be taken during oestrus from the lining of the uterus via the open cervix to demonstrate whether the uterus is free from infection. Clitoral swabs can be taken at any time of the cycle to demonstrate whether the clitoral fossa and sinuses are free from infection. The correct answer is that a positive culture for the contagious equine metritis organism (CEMO), Taylorella equigenitalis, is notifiable by law in the UK. The CEM test also tests for Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, however positive cultures of these two organisms are not notifiable. Link to WikiVet: Taylorella equigenitalis Link to HBLB: CEM Code of Practice Incorrect. Stallions that have not previously been used for breeding purposes are classified as high risk; for other high risk factors, see Appendix 1 of the HBLB CEM Code of Practice. The protocol for testing stallions is as follows: swabs should be taken from three sites; the urethra, urethral fossa and penile sheath, plus pre-ejaculatory fluid when possible. Separate swabs should be used for each site and cultured aerobically and microaerophilically in all circumstances. The correct answer is that a positive culture for the contagious equine metritis organism (CEMO), Taylorella equigenitalis, is notifiable by law in the UK. The CEM test also tests for Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, however positive cultures of these two organisms are not notifiable. Link to WikiVet: Taylorella equigenitalis Link to HBLB: CEM Code of Practice Incorrect. The endometrial swabs from low risk mares should be cultured aerobically only, but all other cultures from low and high risk stallions and mares should be cultured both aerobically and microaerophilically. The correct answer is that a positive culture for the contagious equine metritis organism (CEMO), Taylorella equigenitalis, is notifiable by law in the UK. The CEM test also tests for Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, however positive cultures of these two organisms are not notifiable. Link to WikiVet: Taylorella equigenitalis Link to HBLB: CEM Code of Practice

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How is the carrier state for equine strangles best diagnosed or excluded? Culture of 3 nasopharyngeal swabs taken 1 week apart Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of a nasopharyngeal swab Culture and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of guttural pouch washings PCR of blood sample Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of guttural pouch washing Please select an option Incorrect. Culture of 3 nasopharyngeal swabs, collected a week apart, is the most common way to diagnose the strangles carrier state, however it only diagnoses 66% of carrier horses. PCR increases the sensitivity to 90%, and using guttural pouch washings increases this further, making culture and PCR of guttural pouch washings the most sensitive test for the strangles carrier state. When taking nasopharyngeal swabs, it is important to sample the back of the pharynx around the opening of the guttural pouch, to get the most reliable sample. This is done using specially designed elongated swabs with enlarged absorbent heads. Shedding of S. equi into the nasopharynx often occurs intermittently, so repeated swabbing is recommended to confirm negative results. Link to WikiVet: Strangles Incorrect. Whilst PCR is more sensitive than culture, S. equi is only shed into the nasopharynx intermittently, so a single swab is unreliable for the carrier state. The most common way to diagnose the strangles carrier state, is culture of 3 nasopharyngeal swabs collected a week apart, however it only diagnoses 66% of carrier horses. PCR increases the sensitivity to 90%, and using guttural pouch washings increases this further, making culture and PCR of guttural pouch washings the most sensitive test for the strangles carrier state. When taking nasopharyngeal swabs, it is important to sample the back of the pharynx around the opening of the guttural pouch, to get the most reliable sample. This is done using specially designed elongated swabs with enlarged absorbent heads. Link to WikiVet: Strangles Correct! Culture of 3 nasopharyngeal swabs, collected a week apart, is the most common way to diagnose the strangles carrier state, however it only diagnoses 66% of carrier horses. PCR increases the sensitivity to 90%, and using guttural pouch washes increases this further, making culture and PCR of guttural pouch washings the most sensitive test for the strangles carrier state. Link to WikiVet: Strangles Incorrect. Blood samples can be used to diagnose an active strangles infection, but the latent carrier state may not be diagnosed in this way. The most common way to diagnose the strangles carrier state, is culture of 3 nasopharyngeal swabs collected a week apart, however it only diagnoses 66% of carrier horses. PCR increases the sensitivity to 90%, and using guttural pouch washings increases this further, making culture and PCR of guttural pouch washings the most sensitive test for the strangles carrier state. When taking nasopharyngeal swabs, it is important to sample the back of the pharynx around the opening of the guttural pouch, to get the most reliable sample. This is done using specially designed elongated swabs with enlarged absorbent heads. Link to WikiVet: Strangles Incorrect. You are correct in realising that guttural pouch lavage fluid gives greater sensitivity for diagnosis of the strangles carrier state; however, a positive PCR result may detect dead DNA, where viable, infectious organisms are no longer present, so bacteriological culture should always be used to definitively confirm status. The correct answer is culture AND PCR of guttural pouch washings is the best way to diagnose the strangles carrier state. Link to WikiVet: Strangles

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Which bacteria is responsible for causing strangles in horses? Burkholderia mallei Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus Rhodococcus equi Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus equi subsp. equi Please select an option Incorrect. Burkholderia mallei is implicated in glanders, a disease seen in eastern Europe and Asia and which is notifiable in UK. It is characterised by multiple small submucosal nasal nodules which liquefy and ulcerate. The correct answer is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi, a very pathogenic bacteria typically causing suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the upper respiratory tract. These lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection. WikiVet Article: equine bacterial Incorrect. Although Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus does cause an upper respiratory tract infection that can be indistinguishable clinically from Strangles, but it does not cause suppurative lymphadenitis which the causative bacteria Streptococcus equi subsp. equi does. This is a very pathogenic bacteria typically causing suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the upper respiratory tract. These lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection. WikiVet Article: equine bacterial Incorrect. Rhodococcus equi is an important cause of severe, often fatal granulomatous pneumonia in foals and is not associated with strangles. The correct answer is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi, a very pathogenic bacteria typically causing suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the upper respiratory tract. These lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection. WikiVet Article: equine bacterial Incorrect. Staphylococcus aureus is not associated with respiratory disease in horses. The correct answer is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi, a very pathogenic bacteria typically causing suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the upper respiratory tract. These lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection. WikiVet Article: equine bacterial Correct! Streptococcus equi subsp. equi is a very pathogenic bacteria typically causing suppurative rhinitis, pharyngitis and lymphadenitis of the lymph nodes of the head and neck that drain the upper respiratory tract. These lymph nodes often rupture and discharge pus 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection. WikiVet Article: equine bacterial

13

What is the permanent dental formula of a horse? 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 3/ 3) 2 ( I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 4/ 4 M 3/ 3) 2 ( I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3/ 3-4, M 4/ 4) 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3/ 3, M 3/ 3) 2 ( I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 4/ 4) Please select an option Correct! In the horse, upper premolar one, or the wolf tooth, is often lacking, hence the upper dental formula of P 3-4. Horses have three upper and three lower molar teeth on each side, which work in a unit along with their premolars. Females usually don't have canines so the formula is often written 1(0)/ 1(0) for mares. WikiVet Article: dental formula. Incorrect. The horse only has three lower premolars but usually has an extra upper premolar i.e. premolar one or the wolf tooth. The dental formula should read 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 3/ 3).Females usually don't have canines so the formula is often written 1(0)/ 1(0) for mares. WikiVet Article: dental formula. Incorrect. The horse only has three lower premolars but usually has an extra upper premolar i.e. premolar one, or the wolf tooth. Also horses have three lower and three upper premolars so thedental formula should read 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 3/ 3). Females usually don't have canines so the formula is often written 1(0)/ 1(0) for mares. WikiVet Article: dental formula. Incorrect. Although this dental formula may be correct for many horses, most horses have an extra upper premolar i.e. premolar one, or the wolf tooth. The dental formula should read 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 3/ 3). Females usually don't have canines so the formula is often written 1(0)/ 1(0) for mares. WikiVet Article: dental formula. Incorrect. Horses have three lower and three upper molars. The dental formula should read 2 (I 3/ 3, C 1/ 1, P 3-4/ 3, M 3/ 3). Females usually don't have canines so the formula is often written 1(0)/ 1(0) for mares. WikiVet Article: dental formula.